Home > Uncategorized > The general decline of public capital between 1970 and 2016

The general decline of public capital between 1970 and 2016

  1. Walter Daum
    October 27, 2019 at 3:17 pm

    What does it mean for public wealth to be negative?

    • John Hermann
      October 28, 2019 at 1:36 am

      I suspect that it has something to do with the so-called national debt. In other words, it has to do with a way of measuring wealth that is embraced by neoclassical economists but rejected by many heterodox economists.

  2. Irfan Ali
    October 29, 2019 at 4:53 am

    i think these declining lines indicate decreasing government ownership and increasing private ownership from 1970 to 2016

  3. Patrick Newman
    October 29, 2019 at 4:48 pm

    Astonishing figures. Didn’t Galbraith have something to say about private wealth and public poverty in the Affluent Society?

  1. No trackbacks yet.

Leave a Reply

Fill in your details below or click an icon to log in:

WordPress.com Logo

You are commenting using your WordPress.com account. Log Out /  Change )

Google photo

You are commenting using your Google account. Log Out /  Change )

Twitter picture

You are commenting using your Twitter account. Log Out /  Change )

Facebook photo

You are commenting using your Facebook account. Log Out /  Change )

Connecting to %s

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.