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Paul Sweezy in 1982 on secular stagnation

‘Secular stagnation’ is the talk of the town at the moment. It was one of the mayor interests of Paul Sweezy. Here, part of a 1982 lecture with a rather concise conclusion.

Let me digress for a moment to point out that the fact that the overall performance of the economy in recent years has not been much worse than it actually has been, or as bad as it was in the 1930s, is largely owing to three causes: (1) the much greater role of government spending and government deficits; (2) the enormous growth of consumer debt, including residential mortgage debt, especially during the 1970s; and (3) the ballooning of the financial sector of the economy which, apart from the growth of debt as such, includes an explosion of all kinds of speculation, old and new, which in turn generates more than a mere trickledown of purchasing power into the “real” economy, mostly in the form of increased demand for luxury goods. These are important forces counteracting stagnation as long as they last, but there is always the danger that if carried too far they will erupt in an old-fashioned panic of a kind we haven’t seen since the 1929–33 period.

So at bottom we are back where the debate of the 1930s left off: Why is the incentive to invest so weak? Hansen’s answers are, I think, a good deal less, not more, persuasive today than they were when he first advanced them. And surely no one can follow the Schumpeter line of blaming anti-business policies for discouraging capitalists from investing in the years since the Second World War, least of all with an administration in power like the one we now have in Washington. We must look elsewhere.

I suggest that the answer is to be found in analyzing the long period—twenty-five years or so—which followed the Second World War, during which we did not have a problem of stagnation. In fact during that time the incentive to invest was strong and sustained, and the growth record of the economy was perhaps the best for any comparable period in the history of capitalism. Why?

The reason, I think, is that the war altered the givens of the world economic situation in ways that enormously strengthened the incentive to invest. I list in very summary form the main factors: (1) the need to make good wartime damage; (2) the existence of a vast potential demand for goods and services the production of which had been eliminated or greatly reduced during the war (houses, automobiles, appliances, etc.): a huge pool of purchasing power accumulated during the war by firms and individuals which could be used to transform potential demand into effective demand; (3) the establishment of U.S. global hegemony as a result of the war: the U.S. dollar became the basis of the international monetary system, prewar trade and currency blocs were dismantled, and the conditions for relatively free capital movements were created—all of which served to fuel an enormous expansion of international trade; (4) civilian spin-offs from military technology, especially electronics and jet planes; and (5) the building up by the United States of a huge peacetime armaments industry, spurred on by major regional wars in Korea and Indochina. Very important but often overlooked is the fact that these changes were in due course reflected in a fundamental change in the business climate. The pessimism and caution left over from the 1930s were not dissipated immediately, but when it became clear that the postwar boom had much deeper roots than merely repairing the damages and losses of the war itself, the mood changed into one of long-term optimism. A great investment boom in all the essential industries of a modern capitalist society was triggered: steel, autos, energy, ship-building, heavy chemicals, and many more. Capacity was built up rapidly in all the leading capitalist countries and in a few of the more advanced countries of the third world like Mexico, Brazil, India, and South Korea.

In tracing the causes of the re-emergence of stagnation in the 1970s, the crucial point to keep in mind is that every one of the forces which powered the long postwar expansion was, and was bound to be, self-limiting. This indeed is part of the very nature of investment: it not only responds to a demand, it also satisfies the demand. Wartime damage was repaired. Demand deferred during the war was satisfied. The process of building up new industries (including a peacetime arms industry) requires a lot more investment than maintaining them. Expanding industrial capacity always ends up by creating overcapacity.

To put the point differently: a strong incentive to invest produces a burst of investment which in turn undermines the incentive to invest. This is the secret of the long postwar boom and of the return of stagnation in the 1970s. As the boom began to peter out, stagnation was fought off for some years by more and more debt creation, both national and international, more and more frantic speculation, more and more inflation. By now these palliatives have become more harmful than helpful, and to the problem of stagnation has been added that of a rapidly deteriorating financial situation.

Does this mean that I am arguing or implying that stagnation has become a permanent state of affairs? Not at all. Some people—I think it would be fair to include Hansen in this category—thought that the stagnation of the 1930s was here to stay and that it could be overcome only by basic changes in the structure of the advanced capitalist economies. But, as experience demonstrated, they were wrong, and a similar argument today could also prove wrong. I do not myself believe that a new war could have the same consequences as it did last time (or as it did on a lesser scale after the First World War). If a new war were big enough to have a major impact on the economy, it would probably become a nuclear war, after which there might be little left to rebuild. But no one can say for sure that there will never be other new powerful stimuli to investment, such, for example, as were provided by the industrial revolution, the railroad, and the automobile in earlier times. What one can say, I think, is that nothing like that is visible on the horizon now. For those who understand this, the lesson is clear enough: rather than wait around for a miracle (or an irretrievable disaster), it is high time to dedicate our thoughts and energies to replacing the present economic system with one which operates to satisfy human needs and not as a mere byproduct of the presence or absence of investment opportunities attractive to a relative handful of socially irresponsible capitalists.

Let me close with a few remarks about the relevance of the foregoing analysis to a subject to which economists have been devoting increasing attention in the last few years, i.e., whether or not the history of capitalism has been characterized by a long cycle of some fifty years’ duration (what Schumpeter called the Kondratieff cycle). First, we should be clear that the issue here is not whether capitalist development takes place in an uneven fashion with periods of rapid expansion being succeeded by periods of slow (or even no) expansion and vice versa—what have often been referred to as long waves. The empirical existence of long waves in this sense is undeniable, and the ingenuity of statisticians operating with an almost infinite variety of possible statistical sources can be counted on to make out a case for a time sequence of accelerated and retarded growth rates compatible with the existence of an underlying cyclical mechanism.

But compatibility with the existence of a cyclical mechanism is entirely different from proof of the existence of such a mechanism. The reason for our acceptance of the idea that relatively short cycles exist (i.e., cycles of less than ten years’ duration, Schumpeter’s Kitchin and Juglar cycles) is that the mechanisms at work can be elucidated analytically as well as verified empirically. The important point is to be able to demonstrate that the two basic phases of the cycle, expansion and contraction, can each be shown to contain the seeds of its opposite. This principle lies at the core of all modern business-cycle theories. To quote what was long a standard textbook on the subject:

Business cycles consist of recurring alternations of expansion and contraction in aggregate economic activity….The economy seems to be incapable of remaining on an even keel, and periods of expanding activity always and all too soon give way to declining production and employment. Further, and this is the essence of the problem, each upswing or downswing is self-reinforcing. It feeds on itself and creates further movement in the same direction; once begun, it persists in a given direction until forces accumulate to reverse the direction. (Robert A. Gordon, Business Fluctuations, New York, 1952, 214)

The key phrase is “until forces accumulate to reverse the direction.” This occurs in both the expansion and the contraction phases of the normal business cycle, but the symmetry breaks down when it comes to long waves. As we have already noted in the case of the long expansion following the Second World War, the reversal does indeed take place: it is the nature of an investment boom to exhaust itself. But it is equally clear from the experiences of the 1930s and the 1970s that the stagnation phase of a long wave does not generate any “forces of reversal.” If and when such forces do emerge, they originate not in the internal logic of the economy but in the larger historical context within which the economy functions. It was the Second World War that brought the stagnation of the 1930s to an end. We still do not know what will bring the stagnation of the 1970s and 1980s to an end—or what kind of an end it will be.

  1. chdwr
    November 17, 2013 at 9:44 pm

    The key to understanding and resolving both the effective demand problem and the investment problem is in providing a continuously adequate source of individual demand which will thus continuously create and maintain a good investment environment even as technological innovation also reduces the rational need for labor and hence effective demand. Doing this requires adding a new consumer (individual) financial paradigm of the gift to the present enforced restrictive paradigm of loan ONLY which is a basic monopolistic asymmetry that has been allowed in a supposedly free market theoretical framework. Our cognitive dissonance about such, needs to be dispelled….with post haste.

  2. Jeff
    November 17, 2013 at 10:46 pm

    Ok, bad start: “or as bad as it was in the 1930s,”

    The idea that the economy was uniformly bad in the 1930s is an important myth for the “broken window fallacy” group to maintain. As long and they can keep the public under the impression that nothing important economically happened in the 1930s, then they can dismiss any talk of growth under FDR with “hmmmphhh! You mean world war II???”

    The distressing thing about this particular myth is that it has been repeated so often that now you even find liberals kowtowing to this ideology.

    We grew 10% a year after adjusting for inflation using BLS numbers. Compare and Contrast:

    Democrats held both branches of congress and the Presidency from 1933-1945 and almost tripled the economy in 12 years (about 190% growth). Contrast this with the only period in modern history where Republicans held the presidency and both branches of Congress (1920-1932) and the economy grew between 0% and 10%. Total. In 12 years.

    The *only* sense in which FDR’s thirties represents a bad economy is in the sense of starting from the bad place where the Republicans left it in 1932.

    • November 18, 2013 at 12:01 am

      Jeff,

      Just a little comment. This is how the text starts:

      “Let me digress for a moment to point out that the fact that the overall performance of the economy in recent years has NOT BEEN (…) as bad as it was in the 1930s (…)

      Now, by all means, carry on. :-)

  3. Jeff
    November 17, 2013 at 11:39 pm

    The problems continue with:

    “The reason, I think, is that the war altered the givens of the world economic situation in ways that enormously strengthened the incentive to invest. … (1) the need to make good wartime damage;”

    Some of these factors, especially #1 more likely contributed to the drop in prosperity from the 1933-1945 period than the increase in prosperity compared with the 1920-1932 period.

    Amusingly, he references the confidence fairy in his explanation for why there was greater investment in the postwar period than the war adjustment demanded. This particular myth is astonishing in its breadth and scope. If you talk to just about any business in a right-wing country like ours what they need to expand, they will tell you that they need customers, not confidence (a company in a left-wing country like – are there any left? – would be most likely to tell you they need investment capital to expand but they have willing customers). Confidence plays into the percentage of take-home pay that gets spent, but has nothing to do with why people who are earning a smaller percentage of a firm’s revenues are willing to offer a smaller percentage of a firm’s revenues as spending.

    This blind spot has some hilarious references in the main-stream. I found in an “advanced” undergraduate textbook on economics at a big-name school (called by some “southern Ivy-league”) an unusual phenomenon that “no-one understands” whereby the propensity to spend (as measured by national savings rate) went up in the 1980s US. When you realize that “National Savings Rate” is a category error, just like “National pregnancy rate” (I knew I should have put grand-pappy on the pill…) and that the fastest and easiest way to increase savings is to move the tax burden from the rich to the poor, then you immediately see that anybody surprised by Reaganomics decreasing “confidence” as measured by spending propensity has the possibility of a massively world-view expanding economics lesson in their future.

    The story of the post-war period for the US is largely that of politicians with a personal memory of the 1920-1932 disaster who carried out a watered down version of what was done in 1933-1945. The post-war period, however, averaged close to 4% annual economic growth from 1945-1970 compared with 10% annual economic growth before the war started. Anybody who says that the 4% was as high as it was because of the silver lining benefits of the war needs to go back and put things into historical context, in my opinion.

  4. F. Beard
    November 18, 2013 at 12:15 am

    Over investment relative to effective demand occurs when the purchasing power used to finance the investment is LENT into existence and instead of being around to finance the consumption of the new goods and services produced is instead destroyed as the loan is repaid. Worse (for the sake of consumption), the interest required is transferred to those with a lower propensity to consume.

    Now consider that purchasing power can be SPENT into existence (e.g. common stock) and thus need NOT be destroyed except in the consumption of goods and services. So the purchasing power used to finance investment remains around to finance consumption. How convenient!

  5. elwoods
    November 18, 2013 at 1:52 am

    The macroeconomists with their models have concluded that interest rates need to be negative to restore a healthy economy. But this is not possible. Let’s examine what this means in terms that a layman can understand. The economy needs demand and investment to produce goods and services. Demand and investment come from the same source, income. If more income is saved, there is less available to create demand and vice versa. Production will be restrained if investment is not sufficient to produce the goods and services that are demanded. The solution to this problem is to raise interest rates so more of the national income is directed to savings and less to spending, which creates demand. Now what if demand is too low because too much income is going to savings? Savings need to be reduced to increase demand. The means to do this would be to lower interest rates. But this measure is limited, since rates near zero won’t cause savers to start spending. So what will cause more spending? Taking money from the savers and giving it to people who want to spend. So what is the mechanism to do this? Tax the savers, and reduce the taxes on spenders, to zero, if necessary. Or, provide the infrastructure, free health care, education, and retirement benefits to the spenders, so more of their income can go to spending. This is essentially what was done in the decades immediately after WWII, when the highest marginal tax rates were near 100% and the government was spending on roads, education, the GI Bill, and Social Security and Medicare were implemented. Instead, what we have done since the 1980’s is reduce high marginal tax rates and taxes on capital gains, allow offshore tax havens, privatize education, let our infrastructure deteriorate, bust unions, and deregulate business to allow more of the rewards of productivity to go to savers. And, now the austerity advocates are on a path to destroy Social Security and Medicare. Isn’t it clear that all we have to do is restore the conditions that existed the fifties and sixties?

    • F. Beard
      November 18, 2013 at 5:22 pm

      There’d be little need to tax away ill-gotten gains if the means of obtaining them, a government-backed credit cartel, were abolished and RESTITUTION with new fiat provided to its victims.

      Government is meant to serve the general welfare, not the benefit of the banks and so-called creditworthy, which always includes the rich, no matter how they acquired that wealth.

      • Jeff
        November 18, 2013 at 8:36 pm

        Before we had government and a financial system we had a hunter/gatherer society. Showing that wouldn’t be the result requires some actual math and requires separating the players better than you do above. As an example, if 100% of the zero shares of common stock we might have without a financial system in place are available for consumption, then the 100% share doesn’t buy you much.

        Lets make the models as simple as possible, but ignoring the wealth-bootstrapping effect that credit and often only credit can provide is vastly oversimplifying.

  6. Lyonwiss
    November 18, 2013 at 7:29 pm

    Most discussions of investment and saving are flawed, because the discussions focus on equilibrium models of flows, ISLM type arguments. The effects of the stock of debt from accumulated imbalances of the past have been ignored. This is like looking at the finances of a corporation without its balance-sheet.

    The $17 trillions of US government debt indicate that the US government has already spent the trillions of dollars it did not have, by borrowing from its own citizens and from foreigners. While foreign debt is significant, domestic debt is still the majority. That debt is held as government bonds, which are assets and represent the savings of savers.

    Government bonds are continually being rolled over as they mature. As interest rates are lowered, the debt service costs are lowered and the government can borrow and spend more, at the expense of savers who have less income. Many of the savers are actually consumers because they are retirees who are not saving, but are spending and consuming their assets.

    Hence lowering interest rates reduces income for large groups of dedicated consumers and lowers aggregate consumption. Even for older workers, lowering interest rates lowers the rate at which their “nest eggs” grow, causing them to postpone their retirement and/or increase their saving by reducing consumption. The employment data of aged workers support this view.

    The argument about lowering interest rates to increase investment to generate economic growth to increase employment to increase income to increase consumption is a long chain of causality not supported by the economic performance of the past five years. The stimulatory effect on investment may be off-set by the depressive effect on income and consumption. This suggests the zero interest rate policy is sub-optimal, because euthanasia of the savers may mean the euthanasia of the economy.

    • BFWR
      November 18, 2013 at 7:52 pm

      Yes, and it’s all remedied by a modern debt jubilee and a perpetual individual dividend as technological innovation reduces wages and increases productivity. It’s quite astonishing how practical the application of amazing monetary grace actually is.

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 12:59 am

        A “debt jubilee” refers to a creditor (a king) forgiving the debt of debtors (his serfs). This is seen as an act of justice (and perhaps generosity), since the debt is assumed to have been immoral in the first place.

        It would be a sloppy use of language to imply that anything similar should apply today, because the creditors are the savers owning government bonds and the debtor is the government. It is only the creditors or savers who have the ability or right to forgive the government debt. The government has no right to “forgive”.

        Anything done by a debt-laden government using its coercive powers to eliminate its debt cannot be called “debt jubilee”. It would not be an act of monetary grace. A government can always do the honest things by following its own laws and default on its debt obligations and accept the normal discipline of the market.

        The only right thing for the government to do (if possible) is to confiscate the personal fortunes of those fraudulent bankers, who belong to the 0.01 percent and apply your “monetary grace” to the victims of fraudulent housing debt. Taking on more government debt to compensate the victims would be wrong on wrong or immorality on immorality.

      • BFWR
        November 19, 2013 at 5:06 am

        I’m sorry your thinking here is mixed up. Paying off bonds is paying off savers, that’s paying them their money back. As for bubble mortgage debt and much of other forms of debt which are also questionably justifiable if the only way to maintain a lifestyle in an inherently monetarily erosive earnings “market” is to borrow more or accede to the irrational, namely austerity.

        The real problem with economics and economists is they/it are/is unwilling to transcend them/itself. The rules no longer work…and an actual solution, as opposed to a palliative/stalling game, requires a reset and NEW rules that make unworkable systems work. As with humans so with systems. Transcending oneself is everyone’s life’s work….whether they chose to accept it or not. And if our systems are to reflect us honestly and accurately (and how can that not be a given?)….we must make our systems transcend themselves via policy as well.

        It’s Ptolemy versus Copernicus, hunting and gathering versus agriculture, stagnation versus renewal, slavery versus freedom, evolution versus extinction.

        Without a vision, the people…and the system the people inhabit, perish. Let us have real human wisdom, not economic wisdom, which is an oxymoron that nearly everyone now must acknowledge. Paradigm changes are not reactionary occurrences. They integrate the old with the new and transform structures rather than destroy them.

        Transformative ideas are transformative….especially when they are natural states of being and ADDITIVE policies that reflect them. “…behold, all things have become new.

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 10:32 am

        You said, “Paying off bonds is paying off savers, that’s paying them their money back.” What with? More bonds or printed currency? The savers might not want their contracts unilaterally terminated. It is not my thinking that’s mixed up. Let’s stick with understanding the problems of concrete reality rather imagined ones.

    • Jeff
      November 18, 2013 at 10:06 pm

      Lyonwiss :
      The argument about lowering interest rates to increase investment to generate economic growth to increase employment to increase income to increase consumption is a long chain of causality not supported by the economic performance of the past five years. The stimulatory effect on investment may be off-set by the depressive effect on income and consumption. This suggests the zero interest rate policy is sub-optimal, because euthanasia of the savers may mean the euthanasia of the economy.

      However, how much control over interest rates do we really have? If you believe in supply and demand, then various interest rate proxies, like the P/E ratio in stocks and the Price/Rent ratio in real estate all are going up in concert with bond prices and arguably are determined by the supply of dollars chasing capital vs the supply of dollars chasing consumption. I would argue that we have done more to affect all of those by passing Reaganomics and derivatives than we have done by buying treasury auctions. (Or perhaps the treasury auction buys were large but required by Reaganomics in order to avoid money shortages).

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 2:45 am

        Who is “we”, when you ask, “how much control over interest rates do we really have?” Clearly, governments (through central banks) have significant control over interest rates, at least in the short-term. Whether this control is justifiable on economic rationale depends on performance.

        So far the control of interest rates has not produced the economic results promised, because the macroeconomic theory on which the decisions are based are simply unscientific. Lowering interest rates has had little impact on real investments, which depend on many other real factors and not just on the “hurdle rate” for project profitability.

        Lowering interest rates merely increase the attractiveness of existing investments through enhanced evaluation of prospective corporate earnings with artificially low discount rates. Excess corporate cash has been used for new investments, but rather for share buybacks and increased dividend payouts. Hence P/E, P/Rent, P/Income etc. all increase in asset bubbles, inflated by cheap margin debt.

        The US government sanctions asset bubbles by manipulating markets either directly through its own trading of assets or indirectly through primary dealers and investment banks which it regulates.

        Ordinary savers do not participate directly in these asset bubbles, because if they have high assets they are near or in retirement, when asset allocation to risky assets must necessarily be low. They have also seen that manipulated markets are illogical markets not based on sound fundamentals, which have all crashed without much notice in recent years.

        Risk aversion is why the US treasury market is so important to ordinary savers, whose income and consumption depend on it. Japan is much further down on this road than US. Loss of control of interest rates and the bond markets through currency debasement will be catastrophic.

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 2:49 am

        Sorry for a typo: ” Excess corporate cash has NOT been used for new investments, but rather for share buybacks and increased dividend payouts.”

  7. F. Beard
    November 18, 2013 at 8:49 pm

    but ignoring the wealth-bootstrapping effect that credit and often only credit can provide is vastly oversimplifying. Jeff

    100% private banks are ethical so don’t straw-man my position. It is government backing for the banks that is unethical and should be abolished.

    And common stock can certainly fund profitable investment else you don’t believe that economies of scale and the division of labor apply to common stock companies when they certainly do.

    But why share, when one can legally steal via a government-backed credit cartel?

    • BFWR
      November 18, 2013 at 10:45 pm

      How about a countervailing credit creating agency to private banks with a specific mandate to create all new monies, interest free, not only for a necessary universal dividend and the rebates for a retail discount given to consumers, but also for the private banks themselves? All of this in an arm’s length 4th branch of government out of reach of legislative meddling.

      • F. Beard
        November 19, 2013 at 2:05 pm

        How about instead that the monetary sovereign simply spend its inexpensive fiat into existence and tax some of it out of existence as necessary to control price inflation AND forget all borrowing and lending since those are inherently discriminatory? And that sovereign spending could include a BIG and/or Citizen’s Dividend.

        As for banks, if we need them at all, they should be 100% private.

      • F. Beard
        November 19, 2013 at 2:16 pm

        All of this in an arm’s length 4th branch of government out of reach of legislative meddling. BFWR

        Whatever for? The legislature of a monetary sovereign has the INHERENT right to create as much inexpensive fiat as it desires BUT that fiat should ONLY be legal tender for government debts though it could, of course, be VOLUNTARILY used for private debts too.

        BTW, the definition of grace is unmerited favor. Grace is a gift. OTOH, the US population is a victim of theft and therefore DESERVES restitution.

  8. F. Beard
    November 19, 2013 at 1:58 pm

    @Lyonwiss,

    Since a monetary sovereign like the US has no need to borrow in the first place, then sovereign borrowing is a form of welfare for the banks and the rich. In view of that, sovereign debt holders are due no special consideration but merely the letter of the law. So sovereign debt should be paid off with new fiat as it comes due.

    • Lyonwiss
      November 19, 2013 at 2:12 pm

      Sovereign debt is not just “welfare for the banks and the rich”. Your pension fund and your savings (if you have any) could include it. Technically sovereign debt can be paid off with more fiat currency. But for how long? Economic theory is no guide. But history suggests not much longer than 40-50 years.

      • F. Beard
        November 19, 2013 at 2:26 pm

        Hiding behind widows and orphans? If they need welfare then we should provide it generously. Indeed, much of that welfare would not be charity but just restitution for what has essentially been theft via a government-backed counterfeiting cartel for the sake of the banks and the so-called creditworthy, which, btw, always includes the rich.

        How long? For as long as government can require that taxes be paid ONLY with fiat is how long inexpensive fiat will have value. That’s how fiat works, don’t you know?

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 2:40 pm

        Don’t you know that many countries have defaulted on their sovereign debt, even though new fiat currency is technically an option.

        The US government nearly defaulted on its debt obligations just a couple months ago, including payments to widows, orphans and other welfare recipients. Actual default may happen sooner than many think.

        The theoretical mechanics of fiat currency is too simple and excludes many real-world factors which you ignore. You have been reading too many academic economists.

      • Lyonwiss
        November 19, 2013 at 3:07 pm

        F.Beard, you should tell Wall Street and most of the world that a US government debt default is a figment of their imagination when new fiat currency is all that’s needed and can be created at will:

        http://www.reuters.com/article/2013/11/19/us-usa-fiscal-banks-warrooms-insight-idUSBRE9AI05P20131119

        Wait! Others have already done this. They are called Modern Monetary Theory (MMT) economists.

      • F. Beard
        November 19, 2013 at 4:22 pm

        MMT is definitely a part of the solution, perhaps a 1/3.

        The other 2/3s are the allowance of genuine private currencies for private debt only and the abolition of government-backing for the banks and restitution with new fiat for their victims, nearly the entire population, both debtors and non-debtors.

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